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kallend

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until the next one, that is)



I wonder if someone has looked into if there is a last one or not.



Yes, Euclid did.

Euclid's Proof

Suppose that there are only finitely many primes, say n of them. We could then make a list of these n primes, say p1, p2, ..., pn. Then consider the integer m obtained by multiplying all of the primes, and then adding 1. This new number m is either prime or it is not. But m is clearly larger than all of p1, p2, ..., pn so it cannot be one of the primes. So m is not prime, and therefore must be evenly divisible by some prime. But we are supposing that the only primes are p1 through pn--and none of these primes divides m evenly, for when m is divided by one of these primes, the remainder is 1. This contradiction shows that the supposition that p1, p2, ..., pn is a complete list of all primes must be false. The conclusion is that there are not finitely many primes; there are infinitely many.
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The only sure way to survive a canopy collision is not to have one.

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